Dear Dr. Bob,
We need more people like you in the world. You present true leadership and I am thankful to this site forever. I will definitely spread the word about this site and give you my donation. I have a question that I am unable to find on this site though (and maybee I have not looked long enough). If so I apologize so much. If you are a male and have only vaginal intercourse considering you are using a latex condom from beginning to the end and no breakage with a confirmed HIV positive, what are the chances of getting HIV?
You said before that the chance of getting it without a condom is 5/10,000 (confirming the person is HIV positive). So what are the chances now considering the above?
Your answer would be greatly appreciated....
I am a very worrysome person and your answer would really help me out. Thanks a million for your answer...
Assuming the latex (or polyurethane) condom was used properly and did not fail, the HIV risk would be nonexistent. HIV cannot permeate intact latex (or polyurethane). No way. No how! The qualifying statements here, "used properly" and "did not fail," are the key to why condom efficacy is not absolute. Some folks use the wrong kind of condoms (lambskin "natural" condoms prevent pregnancy, but not HIV transmission). Others may damage the condom when ripping open the foil packet or by using an oil-based lubricant. Still others may not put the condom on properly or perhaps put it on only just prior to ejaculating. When you factor in all these real life situations, when it comes to using condoms in the real world often in the dark and in the heat of passion the overall condom failure rate could be as high as 5 to 15%! Of course, not every condom failure with an HIV-positive partner leads to HIV transmission. In fact, for insertive vaginal sex, the estimated risk statistic is what you quoted in your question 5 per 10,000 exposures.