I wanted to pose this question. I went to the doctors for a UTI. They said that was what it was but they screened for chlamydia anyways. I don't know much about it so I went online to research it. I definately get that it is an STD. What I don't understand is what if a male and female were both screened before having intercourse and were negative but contracted it later while still monogamous. How can it happen? It has to have a beginning like a bacteria gone bad. It needed to have a start. It's not like one individual was born with it magically and now everyone can get it. It has to start in the body somehow.
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