Some specific questions I didn't came across, ever / and something interesting

First question:

The CDC says that HIV can be transmitted trough "small cuts or open sours".

I am sure that there are a lot of people out there that shave their "triangle" last-minute, e.g. minutes before the sexual act. Everybody knows that body hair, especially in that region is very strong, yet the skin is very soft and easy to be "damaged".

Basic question is, isn't shaving on/around the genitals before having intercourse endangering people, even if they use a condom? During intercourse the penis-shaft and vaginal fluids touch repeatedly. Since we all know, no blod (after shaving) doesn't mean they're not miniature wounds/cracks in the skin.

I never saw an answer to this question, actually never saw even the question before - but it sounds logical to me, or am I wrong? Is there any study on this?

Second question:

Why is it a "common answer" on all forums that an act is considered a non-risk-scenario, when the penis-head touches the vagina, but doesn't penetrate? Even if he is not penetrating, since the urethra is one of the "main entry point's"for HIV for a man, touching directly with vaginal fluids e.g. the vagina- isn't that the same like being "inside"? In both cases the head is "surrounded" by vaginal fluids or at least by an "un-hostile" environment.

Third question:

I learned in biology, a long time ago, that the human mouth is the most "hostile" area, e.g. has most kinds of different bacteria, followed by the vagina, followed at the last place by the rectum (yes, the "ass" is "cleaner" than your mouth). Does this in any part SUPPORT the basic understanding that unprotected anal sex is considered a bigger risk than vaginal sex? What I am trying to ask is, does HIV need a very "clean" environment in order to get into someones body? Is there ANY connection at all?

Fourth:

This has been asked many times, but answers vague, maybe someone can tell some numbers based on studies:
The main problem here in those forums is, that people assume the worst case scenario, e.g. they've had risky sex with a HIV positive individual.

Let's say X has sex with Y, which is positive. Let's say Y doesn't know about that, and his/her VL is high. How many times does X has to have unprotected sex with Y in order to get infected? I've heard 1/2000, 1/20.000 - so where is the real number? It's clear that it can happen the first time, it depends on many many factos but let's speak in odd's. What are studies saying?

I never came across these questions, personally i am interested in question one and two, because of my own fear, question 3,4,5 is just out of pure interest in the subject.

Something else I'd like to share: I've been trying to "survive" my own fear of HIV, based on "non-risk" events. We all make the big mistake, that we are almost sure that the person we've slept with has HIV. Well what if not? The odd's at least in most of the countries are 0,1% - 0,5% which means 1/2000 - 1/200. Then we have to add the odd's, that even IF we had unprotected sex with someone that has HIV, that doesn't mean we've got infected. So an optimistic picture would be 1/2000 out of 1/2000 - this is for the unprotected intercourse. If we had protected sex, and unprotected oral, the whole thing is becoming even bigger, 1/2000 out of 1/2000 out of 2/100 (that last one is very pessimistic). Can someone create a formula like this but based on real studies/numbers? I think i am not far off. Please correct me if i am wrong.

Edited by absger (01/14/13 09:50 AM)

Post Extras: Remind Me!