Sep 15, 2004
In a question posted Sept. 8, 2004, Sharon answered a question about a woman who had been having unprotected sex with her HIV neg. husband for five years, saying that the male was at a lower risk and possibly the woman had a low viral count that helped in her husband not getting infected. I've heard from reputable people in the field that 99% of the time in situations like this the male will not get infected. Do you have any stats on this and is this a true number? I can understand you would not want this to be widely known if it is the case, because then people will think it safe and not use protection. Still, I'd like to hear what the research shows. Thank you for your help.
Response from Dr. Lee
No that is not a true number. There are no clear statistics on this issue. Check with the CDC. However, as with any other stat, if you are the one out of one hundred to have either the good or bad luck predicted by any statistics, it doesn't really matter to you that 99 others had the opposite results. Therefore, SAFER SEX! Do not assume safety.
Gastric Bypass Surgery
- Itchy Rash After Swallowing Precum Does It Mean I Have HIV
- Swollen Glands After Lap Dance Worried I Have HIV
- Swollen Lymph Glands After Needle Stick Worried I Have HIV
- Tingling Lips After Anal Sex Top Sign Of HIV AIDS
- Vomiting After Rimming Worried I Have HIV
- White Spots After Eating Sperm Worried I Have HIV
This forum is designed for educational purposes only, and experts are not rendering medical, mental health, legal or other professional advice or services. If you have or suspect you may have a medical, mental health, legal or other problem that requires advice, consult your own caregiver, attorney or other qualified professional.
Experts appearing on this page are independent and are solely responsible for editing and fact-checking their material. Neither TheBody.com nor any advertiser is the publisher or speaker of posted visitors' questions or the experts' material.