Oct 4, 2000
EXCUSE MY ENGLISH, I DON'T KNOW MUCH.
I HAVE TWO QUESTIONS.
LATE AUGUST I HAD PROTECTED SEX WITH A PROSTITUTE, DURING THAT TIME SHE FINGERED HERSELF AND THE SHE MESSAGE MY PENIS WITH UNKNOWN LIQUID TO ME. WHAT DO YOU THING OF MY RISK AND WHEN YOU SAY THERE IS A LITTLE RISK, DOES THAT MEAN A PERSON CAN GET INFECTED? LATE SEPTEMBER I STARTED GETTING MILD FEVER AND MILD HEADACHE, AND LIKE A PAIN IN MY THROAT, NO DIAREA, BUT A WEEK LATER I STARTED GOING TO BATH ROOM MORE OFTEN WITH LESS OF ABOVE SYPTOMS.
WHY DON'T WE BEGIN TREATMENT REGARDLESS WHETHER THERE IS POSSIBLE EXPOSURE TO HIV OR NOT?
I'VE READ THAT EARLY TREATMENT IS BEST WEAPON FOR HIV.
THANKS FOR ALL YOUR EFFORT IN THIS IN ADVANCE.
Response from Mr. Kull
Your risk for infection is very low in this circumstance. It is impossible to say that there is "no risk" when any kind of sexual activity is involved. So many factors determine infection and it is unlikely that those factors were met in this one instance.
Treatments for HIV are complex and expensive. Antiretroviral medication regimens can be hard to tolerate for many. Currently, not enough medication is made available to people in the world who are already infected and dying. It is hard to argue for universal availability of post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) to everyone in the current AIDS crisis. The medical establishment can only provide PEP to people who are at significant risk for infection.
You present an important argument for which there is no easy answer. Well, an HIV vaccine would be an easy answer, so let's keep our fingers crossed.
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