i know you have answered combinations of these questions in the past, but i guess i just needed to hear it in "first person". i received unprotected oral sex from a female sex worker - although i realize you have stated that testing is not recommended for such act, i still went ahead to have testing at 1 month, 2 months, and exactly 12 weeks after exposure. all tests negative. given a theoretical possibility of transmission, would this be enough testing, or do i have to go at the 6 month period? thank you for your time - your service is greatly appreciated and informative.

Since there is no evidence that anyone has been infected with HIV through receiving oral sex, the odds of infection are (practically) zero. Sexual transmission of HIV is known to occur in the following three ways:

1) Anal sex, receptive or insertive

2) Vaginal sex, receptive or insertive

3) Oral sex, receptive fellatio or insertive cunnulingus (transmission to the person whose mouth is on the genitals)

If your sexual behavior does not fall into any of the above categories, then it is EXTREMELY unlikely that you will become infected through sexual contact.

Theoretical possibility means that transmission is possible because you are having sexual contact with someone. You are never risk free when having sexual contact with another person, but do not get stuck on that. There is a theoretical possibility that a piano will fall on you while you walk down the street. That doesn't mean that it is likely that will happen, nor does it mean you should always be looking up when you walk down the street (that is probably more dangerous).

Testing is not considered accurate until three months have elapsed since your exposure. However, HIV antibody testing for this incident is not necessary, so the window period is irrelevant.

RMK