|confused about cdc definition of high risk heterosexual contact
Jan 25, 2010
Hi Dr Bob, The CDC website is not clear to me. If I use a condom that doesn't break with someone who is considered high risk am I now high risk? Or does the cdc definition mean if you have unprotected contact with a high risk person you are high risk? Also have you ever heard of anyone becoming infected with only protected vaginal and protected oral as their only risk? Thanks and I will donate. Scorps fan.
| Response from Dr. Frascino
Hi Scorps Fan,
Unprotected sex with a high-risk individual would put you at risk for STDs including HIV.
Protected sex is protected, assuming the latex or polyurethane condom was used properly and did not fail (break). This type of sexual contact would not be considered a significant HIV-acquisition risk, no matter how risky your skank, I mean gal-pal, happens to be.
The only cases of HIV transmission during "protected" sex I am aware of could be attributed to "human error." Mistakes include (1) improper condom use; (2) using the wrong type of condom (lambskin condoms don't protected against HIV); (3) using the wrong lubrication (oil-based lubricants can denature latex); (4) using outdated or damaged condoms; and (5) condom failure (very rarely condoms pop or tear).
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