I know you get a lot of questions about the window period (as I have read them all) but I can't seen to shake my particular situation. I had somewhat protected sex with a female (I am male) of unknown status about 2.5 years ago where lots of menstrual blood was present. I say somewhat because I removed the condom at the end before ejaculating and touched myself with my hand that had blood on it (not sure if I touched the tip, etc). Soon thereafter, I got shingles and a rash (I think but could have been some type of heat rash because it was in April).

I took a Home Access test at 12 weeks and again at 24 weeks, both were negative (October of 2007). That eased my mind for a while... The following are my symptoms since then; a few numb fingers(ulner nerve) when sleeping (7 months post exposure), something resembling geographic tongue that I still have consistantly (11 months post exposure), low white blood cell count that was re-checked 3 weeks later and was fine (14 months post exposure)The doctor said I was probably just fighting something off, my kidney on the left seems tense. I had an ultrasound and bloodwork and everything came back ok (2 years post exposure, tingling in my legs and arms that comes and goes (25 months post exposure).

My doctor says that, "I don't fit the profile for someone at risk for HIV" and given my negative tests at 12 and 24 weeks, doesn't think that is the case (though I havent seen my doctor since the ultrasound 4 months ago). She said not to worry and that I am in good health by looking at my bloodwork and ultrasound.

I am a complete mess now that the HIV fear has been creeping back up with my new symptoms. My questions are as follows:

1) Is it even remotely possible I could be a late seroconvertor and 24 weeks with a Home Access test was too early for me? I am 32 years old and in generally good health (I'm 5'11", 175lbs and do cardio and weights about 2-3 days a week), dont do drugs and drink about once a week.

2)Would I relly be one of only a few people (like 2, 3, 4 50, 1,000 people???)who would have taken that long? It seems like whenever anyone used the 3 or 6 month mark as a guideline, it's followed by some word like, "virtually", "nearly impossible", etc. After all, 99.9% is 1 in 1,000.

I hate to post symptoms because I know people like myself are searching the archeives and I dont want to cause anyone to be alarmed when they see my story (like I often am) but couldnt think of any other way to ask my question.

Thanks again for all the work you do, you certainly seem to be a very good person. Sorry for the long email but I'll be donating some money to the cause.

Hi,

Your HIV-acquisition risk ("somewhat protected sex" with someone of unknown HIV status) is extremely low.

Your negative Home Access tests at 12 and 24 weeks are definitive, conclusive and WOO-HOO-able!

"Symptoms" (even a "tense" kidney) are notoriously unreliable in predicting who is and is not HIV infected. Your symptoms are much more consistent with anxiety than with HIV. Even if you believed a single HIV test was only 99.9% accurate, you've had two tests out to 24 weeks. Combining these two tests would make the statistical odds of a false-negative result so remote they become essentially nonexistent.

Responding to your specific questions:

1. No.

2. No.

You are not alarming anyone with your post! It's really just one more to add to the impressive and ever growing number of posts in our "worried well" category. That's exactly what you are, both "worried" and "well."

If indeed you are "a complete mess now that the HIV fear has been creeping back," you need to seek help for that fear and anxiety. Counseling (psychotherapy) and/or anti-anxiety medication can help you accept the truly wonderful reality of your definitive HIV-negative status.

Thank you for your tax-deductible donation to The Robert James Frascino AIDS Foundation (www.concertedeffort.org).

Be well. Stay well. (Yes, you are indeed "well.")

Dr. Bob