Is this true?
Sep 24, 2009
I'm a straight male who had a high risk exposure with a female prostitute who may have been an IV drug user. The condom slipped off during sex and I didnt realize it until I pulled out. When getting my undetectabel RNA by PCR lab results back 5 weeks later my nurse said something odd. She said that unless I was gay and having anal sex with other men or unless I was a IV drug user that my test results were 99% definitive otherwise I might have to wait a year for definitive results. Why would does it matter? I dont get it, what if the girl I had sex with was a IV drug user than what, what if I fingered her anus, then what? I did get a non reactive antibody result at 15 weeks but with all the symptoms I had I am questioning the outcome because of what this nurse said. Do I have to wait a year? Why would other people have to wait much longer? If you could elaborate I would really appreciate it.
Response from Dr. Frascino
I agree that nurse "said something odd!" She also said something incorrect! I hope she is more competent at nursing than at providing HIV testing advice!
You are correct. What she said makes absolutely no sense whatsoever. The virus really doesn't care if you're gay, straight, tranny, bi-curious or closeted Mormon Republican.
I would consider your non-reactive 15-week antibody test plus your undetectable 5 week quantitative HIV plasma RNA PCR definitive, conclusive and WOO-HOO-able. No further HIV tests are warranted. Remember, a valid negative HIV-antibody test outside the window period trumps "symptoms" each and every time!
The only potential point of confusion could be the CDC's recommendation that those who have had a "significant" HIV exposure, such as receptive anal sex with a partner knowns to be HIV positive or an occupational exposure in a health care setting, should get HIV-antibody tests at both the three- and six-month marks. The nurse's comment about a one-year test is simply wrong.
My advice to you is that you WOO-HOO without further delay.
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