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Aug 13, 2009


I am confussed. I went to my doctor after a low risk (receptive blow job) exposure and she did a HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibody at 5 weeks after exposure. She also for some reason ordered a HIV-2 PCR. All of the results came back negative. I called to ask about if she had run a HIV-1 PCR and she said that there was no such of test, and not to worry I have nothing to worry about. My question is if a HIV-2 PCR was run would it detect HIV-1 which is more common in the U.S than HIV-2. Why would she order an HIV-2 PCR? This makes no sense to me. Thank you for your help.

Response from Dr. Frascino


Actually I think it's your doctor who is confused! She clearly does not seem to understand the difference between HIV-1 and HIV-2! She ordered the wrong test! In fact her decision to order HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibody tests at five weeks was also misguided, because HIV-antibody tests taken prior to the three-month mark are not considered definitive or conclusive.

I would suggest you fire your doctor and find one who is more competent.

Following a low-risk exposure, the only test you need is a single HIV-antibody test at the three-month mark.

Dr. Bob

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