need your input and advice
Nov 15, 2006
In feb of 2005 I recieved unprotected oral from a lady, and afterwards protected vaginal. I didnt finish so I removed the condom, and she finished me by humping and rubbing my penis head with her wet vagina. I am not even sure there was any penetration involved. If it was it was just the very tip and only for seconds. Well this one night stand worried me since, and last week I was tested with an antibody test. The results came back (specimen nonreactive for hiv antibodies). I know that means negative. This test was done 22 months after the possible exposure. Is one test at this time sufficient and accurate enough to be called conclusive? The health department said If I was worried about an incident I could retest at six months, but when I explained it was 22 months ago, they assured me all was well. That I was definately negative. I just read so much about people taking multiple test it kinda made me doubt mine. I didnt worry until i was taking bactrim 2 weeks later and i had red dots show up on my legs and torso. It was called an allergic reaction. It went away within a day of stopping bactrim. I had a sore throat 2 1/2 months after her that lasted a couple weeks. I know it could have just been a sore throat. In your opinion is the one negative antibody test at 22 mos past risk conclusive. Do I need retesting. The way I see it if it was negative then, it would have been negative at 3 6 9 12 months as well. And I dont see why it would change because I havent had any risk since her. Do I get a wooo hooo? PS. I talked to her a week ago, and she is planning to be married and they are having a little boy in december. Thank you for all the support this site has given me. NW
Response from Dr. Frascino
Your 22-month negative test is definitive, conclusive and WOO-HOO-able! HIV is not your problem. No way. No how. No additional HIV tests are warranted.
Stop worrying and start WOO-HOOing!
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