Hey Bob, I checked several posts and notice you've said this several times:

"The estimated per-act risk for acquiring HIV from unprotected receptive vaginal and anal sex with an HIV-positive male partner is 1 and 5 per 10,000 exposures respectively."

Can you explain what this means exactly? I ask because I'm HIV+ for seven years now and have had undetectable loads and high CD counts ever since I was first infected. Through some "strange" circumstances, after all these years my wife and I had unprotected sex for the first time (she knows about my status) since I've been infected. Now I'm worried. It'll kill me if I've given her HIV...are there meds she can run out and take to lessen the chances? Please answer this question, so I can act quickly! Thanks! Jeff

Hello Jeff,

"Some 'strange' circumstances . . . ." Hmmm . . . like what alien mind control??? Despite whatever circumstances led to this indiscretion, your estimated risk of transmitting HIV remains the same. The estimated per-act risk for acquiring HIV from unprotected receptive vaginal sex is 1 per 10,000 exposures. This and the other estimated risk statistics that I quote are just a way of trying to explain the level of risk for a specific type of exposure and to show that some exposures carry significantly more risk (for example, anal receptive sex) than others (oral insertive sex).

If someone, via "strange circumstances," transient indiscretion or even an unlucky broken condom has a significant HIV exposure, we recommend PEP (post-exposure prophylaxis). These medications should be started as soon as possible (and no later than 72 hours) after an exposure. You can learn more about HIV-risk statistics and PEP by reviewing the extensive information in the archives. I will briefly mention that the risk of HIV transmission is significantly decreased but not completely eliminated, if the positive partner's viral load is undetectable.

Good luck to both you and your wife.

Dr. Bob