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Oct 12, 2006


I was reading through the archives and I came across a post that said " If you use a hypodermic needle directly after an HIV infected person used it to inject illegal drugs, the odds of you getting infected with HIV are 67/10000???" How do you know this, and if that is the case, then why would somebody that shared a needle be put under significant risk if the odds of him getting HIV are less than 1%...

Thank 's

Response from Dr. Frascino


The statistic I quoted is published in a document from the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services entitled "Antiretroviral Post-Exposure Prophylaxis After Sexual, Injection-Drug Use, or Other Nonoccupational Exposure to HIV in the United States."

Please note it is an estimated per-act risk statistic. In reality HIV is much more difficult to transmit/acquire than most folks realize. However, that fact must be considered against the reality that there are over 40,000,000 of us currently living with HIV today worldwide. In generalized terms the highest levels of "estimated per-act risk for HIV transmission" are associated with blood transfusion (HIV-tainted blood), needle sharing with an HIV-positive partner by injection-drug users and receptive anal intercourse with a poz partner. Considering the consequences of HIV disease, a risk of 67 per 10,000 exposures is indeed very significant!

Dr. Bob

WOOOOOHOOOOO!!! Updat from person who asked about CFC donation.
lap dance and bathroom visit

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