questions about risks of exposure
Oct 3, 2006
First I would like to say that this site is absolutely one of the most educational and efficient sites I have seen. You are wonderful! I think it is great to actually have an educated individual available to answer questions. Although there is tons of information available on the internet, sometimes it is difficult to sort through fact and fiction, as well as find information pertainat to ones question.
My questions are as follows:
1) I have read that the risks of exposure from a broken condom is about 2 out of 2000, depending on whether one knows if the given partner was positive. So, if the difference in protection and non-protection is a latex barrier between body fluids, is there a risk difference between a broken condom and limited (under 60 second) non-protected exposure?
2) I have read that menstruation does not hinder the efficiency of condoms, but in a case of a broken condom can it increase the level of risk for either or both partners?
3. I have heard that HIV may be transmitted through relations with individuals who have been exposed to the virus within the last 7 years. How does this work, and is there any actual legitimacy to it?
Thank you for taking the time to answer these questions.
Response from Dr. Frascino
Thanks for your kind comments.
1. Actually your 2-in-2,000 statistic isn't accurate, because it depends on which anatomical site ("tab A and slot B") we are talking about (oral, vaginal, anal). There is no statistical difference between 60 seconds of unprotected broken-condom sex and 60 seconds of unprotected commando sex.
2. Yep, primarily for the insertive partner ("tab A"), if the menstruating partner is HIV positive.
3. Nope. No legitimacy whatsoever. If someone is HIV positive, he is contagious no matter how long he has been virally enhanced.
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