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Risk of infection

Jul 3, 2005

I know you have discussed this in the past, but I really need your help. About 2 1/2 years ago, I had gay sex with a man for the first time. I was a top and we didn't use a condom. He was very gentle and everything went smoothly. We only did it once. Since then, I have not had sex at all. What do you think my chances are of being infected? Yesterday, I finally decided to get an HIV test (I passed out by the way) to hopefully ease my mind. I am very nervous. Do you know any of the statistical studies that might help calm my nerves? Thanks so much for your help. I really appreciate all you do for us.

Response from Dr. Frascino


You want to know the statistics on nervous people who pass out when they get a blood test? Gosh, I don't know if I have that info for you . . . . Oh wait, I see you're wondering about your Cirque-de-so-gay episode without a safety net 2.5 years ago. You're correct: I have discussed this multiple times in the past, so why didn't you just use the archives and double click your way to the information you need? Don't tell me; you pass out when you access the archives, right? OK, sit down so you don't fall over, and listen up. The estimated per-act risk for acquisition of HIV from insertive anal sex with a partner known to be HIV positive is 6.5 per 10,000 exposures. Your estimated risk would be less because we don't know the HIV status of the other guy on the trapeze. Certainly the statistical odds are in your favor that you did not contract HIV from this episode; however, HIV testing is the only way to get a definitive answer. Consequently, I'm glad you had a test drawn. I'll send good luck for negative results, OK? And don't forget your safety net when you go out to play in the future!

Stay well.

Dr. Bob

PLEASE PLEASE Answer this?
KS in heterosexual man ?

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