|Incubation period/female to male transmission
Feb 26, 2005
Hi. I'm new to your forum and have found it to be quite informative. I am 41, married with two great kids (19 months and 2 months). I have been married for three years. I had some experiences prior to marriage (3x) with escorts that included only protected (latex condom) vaginal sex and protected oral sex. My last possible exposure to HIV was in 1997. I have had no symptoms at all but have been wondering about the risk of me having HIV and transmitting it to me wife (and through birth my kids). No one in my family has had any symptoms whatsoever and I have been faithful to my wife since our marriage. I'm not obsessing about this but just concerned about the incubation period of HIV (I've heard it is long)and the chance that I have exposed my wife to it. Also, what is the risk for a man getting HIV from a woman? I've heard that is low. Thanks for your time, a donation is on the way.
| Response from Dr. Frascino
If your pre-wedded-bliss sexcapades were all "protected" and latex condoms were used properly and did not fail, your HIV risk would be essentially nonexistent. HIV cannot pass through intact latex. Based on what you've written, I see absolutely no cause for worry or concern. The estimated per-episode risk of unprotected insertive vaginal sex with an HIV-positive woman is .03% to .09%. Your risk, of course, would be even less, as we do not know the HIV status of your partner and your potential exposure was "protected." Hopefully this information will allay any lingering concerns you may be harboring.
Thank you for your generous donation. It's warmly appreciated and urgently needed.
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