Jan 16, 2004
To the point: I'm male - had vaginal sex w/ a hooker with a condom. She blew me without a condom. 1 month later: Fever, sore throat, night sweats, slightly swollen neck nodes. Doc suggested "bacterial" infection. What the hell does that mean?? Condom did not break - but provided by hooker. Did not assess it. No visible 'leaks' afterwards. In TOTAL panic. Thx for the GREAT work (TRULY helpful and admirable Dr. Bob)- Donation in route.
Hurting HIV fearing Heterosexual
Response from Dr. Frascino
Hello Hurting, HIV-fearing Hetero,
A "bacterial" infection means an infection caused by a bacteria. HIV is not a bacteria. It's a virus.
Your HIV transmission risk is unprotected oral insertive sex. The protected vaginal sex wouldn't be considered a significant risk, assuming a latex condom was used properly and didn't fail. Oral sex carries an extremely low risk for HIV transmission. Other STD's are much easier to acquire via this route. Did your doctor screen for these?
"Total panic" is not warranted. If you're concerned about HIV, get an HIV test. But, you must wait at least three months since your last possible exposure to assure your test will be conclusive. In the interim, your doctor should be able to screen for and treat other possible infections, such as bacterial infections.
Try not to worry too much. All the odds are definitely in your favor!
Thank you for your donation!
Good luck with your three-month HIV test! Keep me posted!
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