Sep 22, 2002
In reading alot of your previous answers to questions I'm a male trying to make a relative risk assesment on a particular situation. What is the risk of infection for a person who had protected vaginal intercourse using a condom with a woman on her period. her infection status is unknown but claims negative. In reading answers to other questions is it true that the insertive partner is at less risk and that even with menstrual blood present the condom protected sex is considered safe? also does washing the area after the possible exsposure make a differance in risk calculation finnaly if thier was a possible exsposure to the virus is it true that exsposure does not mean that you automatically contract hiv? last question does a hiv negative test result at one month have any validity in calculateing risk? thank you for your time and I would like to say on behalf of all those that are unsure of thier status your work on this website has been very helpfull and more importantly informative and I believe effective in makeing a differace.
Response from Mr. Kull
If the condom remains intact and is used correctly throughout sexual intercourse, it should protect you against HIV infection regardless of the type of fluid with which you are coming into contact. Latex is an effective barrier to HIV. So, if you used a latex condom correctly, your risk for infection is very low.
A negative antibody test one month after exposure is not meaningless. The majority of people who become HIV infected will develop a detectable amount of antibodies within one month of exposure. However, since there is a significant amount of cases that could take up to three months to develop anitbodies, testing is not consider accurate until three months have elapsed since exposure.
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