Oct 18, 2000
I wrote you a question about timing and no answer to date, I am sure others have similar so I hope you answer... Two incidents. I was tested a year after the last one. I know your answer is I am fine and that is what is important. For added "security" I am curious if it is safe to apply the following: Each guy was tested as well. One was tested 1 yr. and 10 months after our time together and he was negative. The other was tested 1yr. after our incident and was negative. Is it correct to do the math and think that therefore they were both negative at the time I was with them? Even though I can not account for what they did during the year or almost two years after in the one case? It seems from what I have read that these results would mean that they were in fact negative at the time I was with them....? Like I said I know your answer is, as long as I tested negative. But I "forced" both of these men to get tests after the fact just to be sure because I figured if they test negative a year after, regardless of what they did after me it would mean they were negative when they were with me, even if they had sex with someone else the day before me and that person was positive. It would show up by a year or almost 2 years, I would think? Or should I not think?
Response from Mr. Kull
If both of your partners tested negative a year after they had sex with you, then it is safe to assume that they were not HIV infected when they were with you. That would mean that you were not exposed to HIV when you had sex with them. Period.
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