|You're a God Send
Feb 8, 2000
I have a question for you. Would you suspect "so-called oral manifestations" to be HIV related if they appeared 3 months past last exposure and remained up to a second test at 4 1/2 months (which was negative)? If these were oral manifestations of HIV wouldn't an individual test positive on the second test, given the length of time the symptoms were present? Thank you, you are a God send.
Response from Dr. Reznik
There are a few things to take into consideration here:
First: there are not any oral manifestations seen in association with HIV/AIDS that are only seen with HIV/AIDS. The problem you are experiencing may have nothing to do with HIV infection.
Second: Whereas in the mass majority of time, seroconversion would take place in 4 ½ months, I believe there are a few examples where this has not occurred even out to 6 months. Which would I suspect to be the more likely rationale: a condition that may be seen in association with HIV, but is also seen for other reasons or a delayed seroconversion? Since there are so many reasons why people present with oral conditions such as candidiasis, angular cheilitis, aphthous ulcerations, etc. the former would be the much more likely scenario.
Hope this helps! and continue to follow up with your primary care provider!
What does this mean
Many thanks to all of you:-)
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