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Mutation and PCR Qualitative

Jun 1, 2001

Dear Dr. Holodniy,

I'll make this easy with yes or no's, I hope ;)

#1 If someone was experiencing TRUE ARS should a PCR DNA test show "detected" 3 weeks after the ARS symptoms have subsided (I didn't mention from time of initial exposure, because that wasn't my question and I didn't want to confuse the two separate issues)?

#2 Would it be true to say that if the test was "not detected", then the "symptoms" were not caused by ARS, although this doesn't rule out HIV infection, it just means this wasn't ARS?

#3 If a PCR RNA is undetectable in an HIV+ person, the PCR Proviral DNA Qualitative "should" still be detectable?

#4 Are most mutations that are caused by "antivirals" "within" the B subtype, still detectable with commercial PCR DNA Qualitative, or does this pose a problem.

#5 Is post 30 days exposure (opinion only, I know) PCR DNA Qualitative test >99 sensitive in picking up infection or is it lower?

#6 IF you were exposed to an HIV+ person (needle stick, suture not hollow, VL 4000, no visible blood on needle) and your PCR DNA Qualitative was not detected at 5 weeks, would you be suspect or would you consider this a strong sign of not being infected?

Thank you,

Response from Dr. Holodniy

#1. If a person were truly infected and had ARS, the symptoms of which went away, and then tested by PCR, then yes it would be positive. #2.Yes. #3.Yes #4.No problem. PCR analyzes a different gene which is not affected by antivirals. #5.WE don't know. #6.A strong sign, but not definitive.

Long-Term Ars/Testing
german measles affecting test results???

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